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no, the modern AMERICAN dialect adaptation to use "you and me" when listing yourself and another person, is incorrect, and not proper English. "you and I" is always correct.

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you need to research more. As an English teach with a lifetime of experience you use the pronoun appropriate to the part of speech. As a direct object, its me, as a subject its I.  Its always been this way, it has not changed. Verify your information before stating inaccuracies. Me go to store today. Will you go with I? Wrong wrong wrong. 

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your argument is invalid
butt seriously, your argument is a fallacy of false equivalence, that is indeed a grammatical rule, but not the one that applies in this grammatical situation. you should go get a refund on your ESL-china work permit.you know what else is grammatically wrong? - "wrong wrong wrong" is wrong, you forgot the commas, and the syntax is doubly redundant.

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you're still wrong. Me  is used when its a direct object,  I  is used when the subject.  That's all there is to it. 

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Wrong™ 
so long and thanks for all the memes :D 

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you are wrong and you're afraid to prove it to yourself.  https://www.grammar.com/me_vs._i

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that is incorrect, as it is american dialect, and is not english

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no. Even in U.K. English,  one uses "me" as an object. Not "I". I is used as the subject.  This is not a matter of dialect.  These are the rules of English grammar and are consistent for the most part regardless of which version of English. 

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that simply is not so

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it is. In this case, the rules are the same. Why don't you show me the rule where it says otherwise.  You can't  because the word "me" is ALWAYS the rule when its the object. 

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https://medium.com/@The_YUNiversity/q-is-it-you-and-i-or-you-and-me-2ee3cc312f0a.  Its easy to verify, so why do lamebrains post their lies without checking.

Ah, so you believe that William Shakespeare was an expert in the use of specifically 21st Century dialectical modern American English in the late 1500s, as was Charles Dickens in the mid 1800s, and as also Edgar Allen Poe in the early 1800s. They must have been great mediums of times to come and you yourself an expert historian and scholar of their works.

your fallacy of false equivalence has zero validity.
we are not discussing archaic authors who used English, we are discussing modern authors who use American Dialect.
this has already been stated plainly, maybe you should learn to read before trying to write?